Okay, so, my family left Poland in 1882 from Galacia and in 1892 from Poznan. They immigrated as Polish nationals, I know this.

However, in Treaty of St. Germain-en-Laye Article 70, "Every person possessing rights of citizenship (pertinenza) in territory which formed part of the territories of the former Austro-Hungarian Monarchy shall obtain ipso facto to the exclusion of Austrian nationality the nationality of the State exercising sovereignty over such territory."

I read this as, my ancestors from Galacia, who possessed rights of citizenship in Austria-Hungary in the territory that in 1918 went to Poland gained Polish citizenship since Poland then controlled the area they originated from.

Now, I've read that this doesn't matter since Poland wasn't a fully independent country from 1795-1918, and thus the Polish citizenship laws (passed in Poland after 1918) are the only ones that count. Which is absurd seeing as how Polish law of 1920 stated "3) is entitled to Polish citizenship based upon international treaties."

So, as of 1920 when law came in effect, all people who were Polish citizens by Germain-en-Laye became Polish citizens and thus, their children should have become citizens of Poland by Article 5 of 1920 law.

In addition, to back up Germain-en-Laye, 1920 citizenship law stated that before 1908, anyone on territory that was Prussian/German gained citizenship (only stated had to live there BEFORE 1908) and that those who were on Austrian-Hungarian territory that now was in Poland gained Polish citizenship (backing up Germain-en-Laye).

From 1920, there have been laws in 1951 and 1962 and I think maybe one after. Not sure. But, from 1920 it becomes easier to prove that other ancestors were then Polish citizens, not just Polish nationals.

So, I'm asking, is my interpretation of the English language valid? If not, can anyone tell me why not and back it up with other laws?